Consider:
y = x - \frac{1}{x}
For the inverse, swap x and y:
x = y - \frac{1}{y}
xy = y^{2} - 1
y^{2} - xy - 1 = 0 , which is a quadratic in y.
Using the quadratic formula:
y = \frac{x \pm \sqrt{x^{2} + 4}}{2}
But now we need to decide whether to take the plus or the minus.
Try...
1.
\int \frac{x^{2}e^{2x^{2}}-1}{x}dx (is that what you were after?)
= \int xe^{2x^{2}}dx - \int \frac{1}{x}dx
You can use a substitution for the 1st. (eg let u = 2x2)
edit:
btw answer is \frac{1}{4}(e^{2x^{2}}-4lnx) + c
But you don't need "to write all that crap down", I just did so above to make it clear what I was doing.
I'm not saying you can't "just factorise" it, I was merely explaining another method that someone might find useful.
Assuming they have to be arranged 4 on bow, 4 on stroke,
no. of ways = (4.3.2)*(4.3)*3! = 1728
I did it by placing each person individually:
Firstly seat the 3 who must row on bow side:
1st one has 4 seats to choose from
2nd one has 3 seats to choose from
3rd one has 2 seats to choose from...
Another way to factorise a quadratic is to find its roots first.
4x^{2} + x - 18 = 0
using the quadratic formula:
x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^{2}-4ac}}{2a}
x = \frac{-1 \pm \sqrt{(-1)^{2}-4(4)(-18)}}{2(4)}
x = \frac{-1 \pm 17}{8}
x = 2, \frac{-9}{4}
Now we have the roots we can "go...
for 2007 Q10b
part (i)
at P,
N_{1}= \frac{L_{1}}{x^{2}}, N_{2}= \frac{L_{2}}{(m-x)^{2}}
N = N_{1} + N_{2}
N = \frac{L_{1}}{x^{2}} + \frac{L_{2}}{(m-x)^{2}}
part (ii)
now we want to minimise the noise level N, so we differentiate (with respect to x)
remember when you are doing this that L1...
The first term is:
T1 = a
The second term is:
T2 = ar
The last term is:
Tn = arn-1
The "last term but one" (the second last term) is:
Tn-1 = arn-2
So to answer the question, the product of the first term and the last term:
T1*Tn = (a)*(arn-1) = a2rn-1
and the product of the second term and...
Definitely not 3unit, it's actually a very simple 4unit mechanics question.
We are given that:
x = 6t - t^2
Therefore:
v = 6 - 2t
a = -2 which implies that the force along the direction that the particle is travelling is -2 (force = mass*acceleration, but let's assume mass = 1, so...
Isn't the integral of sec x = ln(sec x + tan x)?
You could differentiate ln(sec x + tan x) to check that its derivative is indeed sec x, just like tacoqym did for the other one.
Another way to look at the integral of sec x is to multiply top and bottom by (sec x + tan x), giving: [sec x(sec x...